Instrument / Instrument Flight Rules (IN-IFR) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Circling instructions use what type of terminology?
• How can aircrews obtain FAA NOTAMs for military and most civilian fields?
• How is a GPS approach affected by a GPS failure?
• What are the high altitude penetrations?
• Which statement best describes the difference between straight-in and circling approach minima?
• What is the circling MDA for T-1, Category C?
• Where are aircraft maximum holding airspeeds published?
• What is the approximate Vapp used for radar vectors to final?
• Explain radial/arc approach procedures.
• During a missed approach, after climbing beyond 400 ft AGL, what actions should you take with the flaps and which checklist should you complete?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of a typical low altitude approach?
• What is the difference between a direct-to clearance and a route via established airways?
• What is Visual Descent Point (VDP)?
• How is maximum altitude depicted?
• What are the three types of holding?
• What is Expect Further Clearance (EFC) used for?
• During a missed approach under radar vectors with no published procedure, you should climb to 400 ft AGL and pass what before turning?
• What is LNAV/VNAV?
• What is METAR and what is TAF?
• Descend on a procedure turn, only when established _____.
• When may you descend to the next altitude after the lead point during a radial/arc approach?
• Which GPS status indicates the system is validating the approach to the runway?
• What is a Form 70?
• What is the difference between DA and MDA?
• What are the official procedures for radio communications failure on IFR flights (14 CFR 91.185)?
• You should slow down how many miles out from the IAF, and that corresponds to roughly how many minutes?
• Which intercept headings are used for procedure turns?
• What is Mode C and why is it required?
• What does a missed approach holding pattern accomplish?
• What is the hold speed for T-1? What speed do you pass the hold fix at?
• What are ODPs (Trouble T's)?
• What is the purpose of the altimeter setting in flight planning and how is it used?
• What is the MAP for a typical non-precision approach?
• Class A airspace is between what altitudes?
• Which statement describes LPV/VNAV alignment in RNAV approaches?
• To fly an approach, you must ensure your aircraft equipment is compatible with the approach.
• What are the main instrument approach procedure types?
• What are two ways to transition from enroute to terminal area?
• What does PIREP stand for?
• What are the types of hold entry?
• What information does Mode C provide?
• Which item is used to input FMS data as part of arrival preparation?
• Low altitude approaches consist of which two elements?
• If GPS becomes unreliable during an RNAV approach, what is the proper action?
• Which statement correctly contrasts Baro-VNAV and LPV guidance?
• Which statement is true regarding flying an instrument approach?
• ODPs are depicted as what symbol on charts?
• For circling minimums, which minimum type should be used?
• For GPS approaches, the system goes to _____ mode roughly _____ NM from the airport (+/- 1 NM sensitivity).
• What is a primary reason for using SIDs/STARs in IFR operations?
• What is a clearance void time?
• What is the holding standard rate turn in degrees?
• ILS Approach NAVAIDs include which items?
• In the United States, in which airspace does Class A reside and what are IFR requirements?
• For an ASR approach in IMC, expect the _____ to issue MAP instructions. These are normally issued on the downwind or base leg.
• What is LPV and what equipment is required?
• How is mandatory altitude depicted?
• Which option is not a recognized hold entry type?
• Which NAVAID is not available on the T-6, potentially affecting high altitude penetrations?
• Which statement best describes how most GPS systems handle an approach when the approach is loaded?
• Which navigation method can provide LPV/VNAV guidance?
• How should a pilot respond to a meteorological condition change along the route?
• Which feature distinguishes RNAV (GPS) from VOR/DME in terms of navigation?
• Which statement best describes LNAV/VNAV?
• If you lose communications and have not received lost communications instructions, you are cleared to fly any published approach compatible without equipment and the actual weather. True or False?
• Which statement about MEA and MOCA is true?
• At flight levels, which pressure setting is used?
• On enroute IFR charts, MEA and MOCA are defined as which of the following?
• For all instrument departures, maintain a minimum climb of _____ ft/NM on departure.
• What does HILPT stand for?
• What is RAIM and why is it important for GPS approaches?
• Victor routes are in _____ headings.
• What is a SIGMET?
• Which statement best describes when you are established on course during an instrument approach?
• What is STRAIGHT NoRTH/SNERT and what does it stand for?
• Which statement about straight-in minima and circling minima is true?
• What is the difference between a VOR/DME approach and a RNAV (GPS) approach?
• Define the AVEF order for lost communications in IFR.
• During teardrop procedures, when should you begin descent?
• How do you execute a procedure track at the IAF?
• What is the T-1 instrument configuration?
• At glideslope intercept, nose-down by how many degrees to intercept the glideslope?
• What direction are non-standard holds flown?
• When is an IFR clearance required?
• Which description best characterizes a VOR/DME approach?
• When can you descend?
• Aircraft entering a hold must cross the holding fix at the designated holding airspeed.
• In arrival preparation, which item is typically the initial information source?
• What does MEA stand for and what is its purpose?
• What does ETD stand for in IFR flight planning?
• How is block altitude depicted?
• What does "Descend at pilot's discretion" mean during an instrument approach?
• The runway environment consists of _____.
• What is the role of the MAP on a non-precision approach?
• MOCA distance coverage is typically up to how many nautical miles from the VOR/DME facility?
• FAF stands for what in instrument approaches?
• Decision height is measured in _____.
• For low IAPs, terminal routings _____ considered part of the approach.
• Which altitude is associated with 1-minute inbound legs?
• How is minimum altitude depicted on approach charts?
• In heading system failure procedures, which two types of instructions does the controller provide?
• Which statement correctly describes MOCA’s service volume?
• What does squawking 7600 indicate?
• To start a descent, you need to be on the correct radial and DME.
• What is a Baro-VNAV approach?
• What are approach minima and what do they indicate?
• Which statement about the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is correct?
• Which item is NOT included in an IFR clearance?
• For PARs, published decision height is advised by the controller or decision altitude as read on the altimeter, whichever occurs first.
• What is a navigation aid's service volume, and why does it matter for MEA/MOCA?
• For HILPT, how many orbits should you expect unless instructed otherwise?
• What is required for operation in RVSM airspace regarding equipment and approvals?
• For radar vectors to final, what are your configuration settings?
• Missed approach points for ASR are not published and are determined by the _____.
• Which scenario best describes when an alternate airport is required for IFR planning?
• GPS routes are in _____ headings. (Blue)
• In teardrop procedures, for non-DME teardrops, what descent rate and angle are used to stay within protected airspace?
• What method can you use to plan a descent gradient?
• What is an AIRMET?
• If GPS fails during an RNAV (GPS) approach, what should you do?
• What components make up an ILS approach?
• If a MAP is required after commencing the circle maneuver?
• Which statement best describes teardrop penetrations with the required NAVAIDs?
• What is the difference between QNH and QNE?
• What is a Missed Approach Procedure?
• From which facility do pilots typically receive in-flight clearance?
• During a missed approach, what should you do with the flaps after climbing beyond 400 ft AGL?
• What is the purpose of a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) and a Standard Arrival Route (STAR) in IFR flight planning?
• Which GPS-based approach provides vertical guidance similar to an ILS and is supported by WAAS?
• Which statement about SIDs/STARs is NOT a benefit?
• How do you prepare for a lost communications scenario in IFR (AVEF)?
• What is the typical Vapp speed for the T-1 approach?
• GPS systems will not become ACTIVE until established on final.
• The title of an approach plate depicts what?
• What is a holding pattern and the common entry procedures?
• What is the purpose of a transponder code, and what is Mode C?
• What action should you take at intercept of the glideslope?
• Instrument departures provide which benefits?
• Which of the following is NOT a common holding pattern entry method?
• Which checklist should you initiate/complete as part of the missed approach pattern?
• On an instrument approach plate, the fixed point at which the final segment begins is called the
• If you see the 'runway environment' you may continue to land.
• For a non-precision approach (TACAN/VOR), complete configuration prior to which point?
• Which statement best describes GPS approach activation when loaded?
• Decision altitude is measured in _____.
• Which item is included in arrival preparation steps along with ATIS and CHECKLIST?
• GPS systems will not become _____ until established on final. The GPS system will go _____ mode approximately _____ NM prior to the FAF if the approach is loaded.
• What symbol is a black oval with an L on an approach plate?
• Which holding type corresponds to random TACAN holding where TACAN-equipped aircraft may be prohibited from TACAN/VORTAC?
• What are the turn rates in the heading-system-failure approach?
• For teardrop approaches from altitudes below a published IAF altitude, what outbound time is required?
• How do you calculate VDP?
• What is commonly included in an IFR clearance?
• Which of the following may be specified in an IFR clearance?
• Which of the following is NOT a valid method to transition from enroute to the terminal area?
• On a procedure turn, if cleared for the approach and above the IAF altitude, descend when outbound/abeam (holding) or outbound/abeam (parallel) or intercept heading (45/180 and 80/260 degrees).
• Holding over a TACAN is prohibited.
• What does the star mean on an approach plate?
• If GPS fails and there is a published reversion procedure, what should you do?
• How is a circling approach 'only' approach recognized?
• What weather information sources are essential for IFR planning?
• What is the purpose of an alternate airport in IFR planning?
• Attempt contact with the controller if no transmissions are received for approximately:
• Which statement about crossing the holding fix speed is true?
• In absence of published departure procedures, climbout instructions are typically given how?
• Procedure tracks use which three elements?
• What is Gradient(ft/NM) equal to?
• What direction are standard holds flown?
• What is the purpose of the Final Approach Fix (FAF) on an instrument approach plate?
• For heading system failures, which combination of approach type and controller instructions is described?
• What items must the aircrew check before starting an enroute descent?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the STRAIGHT NoRTH/SNERT mnemonic?
• What are the units of a gradient calculated as AltitudeLost(ft) divided by HorizontalDistance(NM)?
• What category are the circling minimums for the T-1?
• Which statement correctly describes METAR?
• What are ILS approach categories?
• Which statement about the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is true?
• On a typical ILS approach, what acts as the MAP for the precision portion?
• What heading type are Victor routes in?
• What is a capability often associated with RNAV (GPS) approaches that may not be available with VOR/DME?
• Use weather and circling MAA (not MDA) for the _____, not _____. Expect circling instructions using _____ and direction of base turn.
• What is the descent gradient formula for percent?
• On GPS approaches, which mode is used when the aircraft is approximately 30 NM from the airport?
• Regarding GPS-based approaches, which statement is true?
• When do you stop repeating instructions?
• Procedure turns are indicated by _____.
• How long are inbound legs at or below 14,000 ft MSL and above 14,000 ft MSL?
• How does RVSM affect altitude assignment and requirements?
• ATC advisories may be issued as additional service and workload permits. True or False?
• BUG stands for which items in this context?
• If the penetration turn altitude is not depicted, what should you do?
• Define hold.
• Which statement about the Maltese Cross symbol on instrument approach charts is true?
• ILS Category II differs from Category I primarily in:
• What is the maximum allowable speed below 10,000 ft MSL?